Monday, June 27, 2005

Question of the Day

What is the difference, in the Bible, between the "Word of God" (John 1) and the "word of God" (Heb. 4:12)? I'm wondering what the difference is in the original writings (Greek), not our modern day translations. If they are the same, what are the differences between these and other renditions of the "word of God" that are found in the Bible.